R
rrustogi
Member
Hi,
Per the question, It has been asked to explain C's holding of risky assets will change as his wealth decrease.
In theory, When A'(w) and R'(w). i.e first derivative of Absolute risk aversion and Relative risk aversion is greater than 0, it exhibits increasing absolute/relative risk aversion. Then why in this question, with decrease in wealth and A'(w) and R'(w) >0 answer states that there will be decrease in risk aversion.
Is it because of solvency level exception, as in investor with decreasing wealth invests increased share of wealth in order to get back the wealth.
Please help!!
Per the question, It has been asked to explain C's holding of risky assets will change as his wealth decrease.
In theory, When A'(w) and R'(w). i.e first derivative of Absolute risk aversion and Relative risk aversion is greater than 0, it exhibits increasing absolute/relative risk aversion. Then why in this question, with decrease in wealth and A'(w) and R'(w) >0 answer states that there will be decrease in risk aversion.
Is it because of solvency level exception, as in investor with decreasing wealth invests increased share of wealth in order to get back the wealth.
Please help!!