A
Ark raw
Member
Hi,
I'm back with another doubt. This time I'm kinda confused about retrospective reserves. Now coming to the confusion I have.
When I read section 6.4 retrospective reserves, It seemed to me that retrospective reserves are
{accumulated money in} - {accumulated money out}, where accumulation is done of all the past payments (in the form of premium by policy holder and benefits by the insurer) made since the inception of contract till the present day and accumulated to the present day.
1.) Now if my understanding is correct then why do we use EPV expression (like A'_x:t], a"_x:t], etc) for calculating the accumulated values of income
and outgo, because if we are accumulating funds from the past, then we should be certain about the status of life and how much premium we
have received in past and how much we have paid out as benefits. Thus why can't we just simply accumulate it using the formulae we have learned in annuities in ct1 (like using, P*s"_t], for calculating the premiums)?
2.) If my understanding is wrong, then what is the correct description of retrospective reserve?
3.) This doubt that I have is from section 6.5, the very 1st condition that is laid for the equality of retrospective and prospective reserve says that both reserves are same when calculated on the same basis. But if my understanding is correct why do we need a basis for calculation of retrospective reserves?
P.S. a.) we know that basis mentioned in the 3 question is a set of assumptions about mortality and interest rate.
b.) for my question 1.), you can see that the solution of question 5.12, and core reading on page 23 use EPV expressions for calculating accumulated values.
c.) I have read a couple of threads that helped me understand the meaning of retrospective reserve, b ut didn't address the doubt I've raised.
Thank you
I'm back with another doubt. This time I'm kinda confused about retrospective reserves. Now coming to the confusion I have.
When I read section 6.4 retrospective reserves, It seemed to me that retrospective reserves are
{accumulated money in} - {accumulated money out}, where accumulation is done of all the past payments (in the form of premium by policy holder and benefits by the insurer) made since the inception of contract till the present day and accumulated to the present day.
1.) Now if my understanding is correct then why do we use EPV expression (like A'_x:t], a"_x:t], etc) for calculating the accumulated values of income
and outgo, because if we are accumulating funds from the past, then we should be certain about the status of life and how much premium we
have received in past and how much we have paid out as benefits. Thus why can't we just simply accumulate it using the formulae we have learned in annuities in ct1 (like using, P*s"_t], for calculating the premiums)?
2.) If my understanding is wrong, then what is the correct description of retrospective reserve?
3.) This doubt that I have is from section 6.5, the very 1st condition that is laid for the equality of retrospective and prospective reserve says that both reserves are same when calculated on the same basis. But if my understanding is correct why do we need a basis for calculation of retrospective reserves?
P.S. a.) we know that basis mentioned in the 3 question is a set of assumptions about mortality and interest rate.
b.) for my question 1.), you can see that the solution of question 5.12, and core reading on page 23 use EPV expressions for calculating accumulated values.
c.) I have read a couple of threads that helped me understand the meaning of retrospective reserve, b ut didn't address the doubt I've raised.
Thank you