1.)The notes state that F(N) is the accumulated fund at age x+n, so was it suppose to be time n instead of time N
2.) I didn't understand how " as N ->∞ the ratio becomes closer and closer to the expected ( = long-term average) amount of fund that would be accumulated per initial investor"?
3.) If F(1) is the accumulated fund, then why F(1) doesn't contain an expression for the premium paid by the policy holder in both the cases i.e. k<n and k>=n? And why does it accumulate benefit amount?
Thank you
Last edited by a moderator: Aug 2, 2017