i think i answered my own question
1.) Var{S(t+dt)/S(t)}=q*(1-q)(u^2 +d^2 +2*u*d) -binomial assumption
2.)Var{S(t+dt)/S(t)}=(dt)*sigma^2 -lognormal assumption
equating (1) & (2) then we have a quaratic in u^2 (as d=1/u)
using simplifying assumptions:
since only over dt, q*(1-q)~=0.25
also {1+o(dt)}^0.5 ~= 1+0.5*o(dt)
then u~=1+dt*sigma^2 +sigma*(dt)^0.5
and since sigma*(dt)^0.5 >> dt*sigma^2
u~=exp(sigma*(dt)^0.5)
but this is nowhere near how the book derived it?
i don't care, i like my way better because it makes sense (or does it? )
Last edited by a moderator: Mar 27, 2008