Hi all, I noticed that the solution of q9.1 uses the following for the dividend yield and yield gap respectively: d=r+ERP+g_div d-GRY=ERP-IRP-g_div-inflation expectations Thought this looked unfamiliar so had a look back into notes/exams from my old CA1 days and the equivalent formulae are: d+g=r+ERP + expected inflation [so inflation expectations are included on RHS of equation for total return vs being excluded above, and g has diff sign as that above] d-GRY=ERP-IRP-g [as inflation expectations cancel out between TR of bond and equity equations] { See q5 CA1(2) Sep 2010} Where am I going wrong here? Thanks
Hi, This relates to the first end of chapter question in chapter 9. The formula as you say, uses a version without inflation. But the key is that the version in this chapter has a small "r" above the d (for real dividend growth). If you take the formula that you are familiar with, split the dividend growth up into "real dividend growth + inflation" then cancel out the inflation you will get the versions that are used in SA7. It is not to say that one is any better than the other. I generally assume that dividend growth will be inflation plus a margin (although this is not always the case) so I tend to cancel inflation out. I hope this helps. Colin
