Xiaoran Gao
Member
Hi,
Can someone please explain why a standard Brownian motion B_t takes a negative value at some point close to t=0?
As per my understanding, at time 0, B_t is equally likely to fluctuate upwards or downwards, then the prob of B_t < 0 would be 1/2. What is faulty in my statement?
Thanks!
Can someone please explain why a standard Brownian motion B_t takes a negative value at some point close to t=0?
As per my understanding, at time 0, B_t is equally likely to fluctuate upwards or downwards, then the prob of B_t < 0 would be 1/2. What is faulty in my statement?
Thanks!