A
Ark raw
Member
In section 5 of this chapter on page 20;
1.) In the example given on that page, the surplus of £2800 is attributable only to a single contract issued 9 years ago to a 44-year-old male or to a group of similar policies issued to different people all of them being male who were issued the same policy 9 years ago when they were 44 years old? And if it is attributable to a single policy why don't we simply increase the sum assured £2800?
2.) In the 2nd point solution of question 6.10, it talks about smoothing of payout and smoother the bonus payments, the “safer” the policyholders feel. so my question is what does smoothing of payout mean? and why would policy holder feel safer if bonus payments are smoother?
1.) In the example given on that page, the surplus of £2800 is attributable only to a single contract issued 9 years ago to a 44-year-old male or to a group of similar policies issued to different people all of them being male who were issued the same policy 9 years ago when they were 44 years old? And if it is attributable to a single policy why don't we simply increase the sum assured £2800?
2.) In the 2nd point solution of question 6.10, it talks about smoothing of payout and smoother the bonus payments, the “safer” the policyholders feel. so my question is what does smoothing of payout mean? and why would policy holder feel safer if bonus payments are smoother?