studyboy321
Made first post
Hi, I am confusing myself trying to explain why, if the regulatory "already allows future profits to be included as an admissible asset....then the regulatory solvency position will not be improved by using a contingent loan".
But if its allowed, then it would/should improve because you can say its improved your solvency position?
Sorry, but I think it has confused me. I have also looked at assignment X5.9, it talks about similar things, including crystallising future profits, but its in general confusing, in particular the regulators involvement and allowing for it would not improve with a contingent loan.
Can you please help me?
But if its allowed, then it would/should improve because you can say its improved your solvency position?
Sorry, but I think it has confused me. I have also looked at assignment X5.9, it talks about similar things, including crystallising future profits, but its in general confusing, in particular the regulators involvement and allowing for it would not improve with a contingent loan.
Can you please help me?