F
fischer
Member
Hi again!
Notional portfolios
I am not able to understand the use of a notional portfolio!!
It does not influence the investment strategy - then why would a company want to do it?
It is not affected by the actual portfolio structure - then what use can it be to a company?
In the example on page 16, the assessed value can be written as
0.75*MVall*DVeq/MVeq + 0.25*MVall*DVbond/MVbond
Q01 Does this ratio tell me anything (is it actually supposed to tell me anything?)
Q02 First line (non-core reading) on page 15 says ".... is a form of discounted cashflow valuation...." and
Last 3 lines (core reading) on page 15 says ".... removes problem of having to estimate future cashflows on each individual asset...."
Are these two statements contradicting each other or is the key each individual asset?
Q03 If total MV of all assets (eq and bonds) = £1m and
Actual split = 60% and 40% => 600,000 and 400,000 and
Notional split = 75% and 25% => 750,000 and 250,000
Then could I do the following:
1. Use some software to project the future value of an equity investment of 750,000 and then discount it back (using suitable interest rate) to present time to give me the DV for equity.
2. Use some software to project the future value of a bond investment of 250,000 and then discount it back (using suitable interest rate) to present time to give me the DV for bonds.
3. Add 1 and 2 to get the value of the notional portfolio.
Any help would be much appreciated.
Notional portfolios
I am not able to understand the use of a notional portfolio!!
It does not influence the investment strategy - then why would a company want to do it?
It is not affected by the actual portfolio structure - then what use can it be to a company?
In the example on page 16, the assessed value can be written as
0.75*MVall*DVeq/MVeq + 0.25*MVall*DVbond/MVbond
Q01 Does this ratio tell me anything (is it actually supposed to tell me anything?)
Q02 First line (non-core reading) on page 15 says ".... is a form of discounted cashflow valuation...." and
Last 3 lines (core reading) on page 15 says ".... removes problem of having to estimate future cashflows on each individual asset...."
Are these two statements contradicting each other or is the key each individual asset?
Q03 If total MV of all assets (eq and bonds) = £1m and
Actual split = 60% and 40% => 600,000 and 400,000 and
Notional split = 75% and 25% => 750,000 and 250,000
Then could I do the following:
1. Use some software to project the future value of an equity investment of 750,000 and then discount it back (using suitable interest rate) to present time to give me the DV for equity.
2. Use some software to project the future value of a bond investment of 250,000 and then discount it back (using suitable interest rate) to present time to give me the DV for bonds.
3. Add 1 and 2 to get the value of the notional portfolio.
Any help would be much appreciated.