Chapter 2 pg 11 - Actuarial notation

[KMB]

Hi all,
My difficulty is the interpretation of the probability presented in the notes.

The notes make note of nPx = n|qx + n+1|qx........
Then gives a summation of k|qx (as per photo) equals to j+1 px - npx

How do you arrive to such a conclusion?

Recalling from chap 1,
n|qx = npx qx+n
How is this used to arrive to the conclusion in chap 2 as per above?

Thanks for your replies

 

[Robert Chadburn]

I think this has been discussed in earlier posts. You could have a look through and see if you can find anything; I suggest you post again if you can't find any joy there.
Robert

 

[KMB]

I think this has been discussed in earlier posts. You could have a look through and see if you can find anything; I suggest you post again if you can't find any joy there.
Robert

Thanks Robert. To be honest i tried to search before I posted.

 

[deepakraomore]

Thanks Robert. To be honest i tried to search before I posted.

Check this
https://www.acted.co.uk/forums/index.php?threads/ct5-temporary-annuity-page-12.13668/

 

[Robert Chadburn]

The other thing I'd say is that this proof has never come up in the exam! So if you don't get your head round it it's not the end of the world, and shouldn't affect your chances. The technique used is not generally used in any regular application question (ie the sort of question that appears in the exam all the time) and not following a few lines of proof here shouldn't get in the way of your ability to study the rest of the course either. Our advice when studying CT5 is always to keep a high-level view of the material, at least at first, and get going with question practice as soon as you can. You're probably fully aware of this already - but I'm writing this also for any others who may be reading and wondering.
Good luck with the course
Robert