Year 2: Increase in AD leads to increase in prices due to increase in non inflationary wages (eg. overtime or by increasing the quantity of labour) This increase in price leads to inflation and reduction in unemployment
year 3: This price inflation results in wage inflation. So next time when there is an increase in aggregate demand the prices would rise even higher
so why is this inflation not a part of year 2?
Acc to the notes shouldn't it be 3% expected inflation + this extra rise in prices due to wage inflation?
Or is it so that the Real AD comes back to its original position due to the expected inflation + the increase due to wage inflation?
Last edited by a moderator: Mar 14, 2014