Hi,
Why don't we consider transfer of reserves when we are projecting the expected cashflows for unit linked end. assurance plan in example 2?
In the example, the benefit paid out to the customer is "bid value, at the time of death, of the units purchased, subject to a minimum guaranteed sum assured of S".
Technically, isn't the difference between S and the bid value a non-unit benefit? In that case, shouldn't we be setting aside a reserve for that benefit?
Thanks!
Regards,
Sunil
Why don't we consider transfer of reserves when we are projecting the expected cashflows for unit linked end. assurance plan in example 2?
In the example, the benefit paid out to the customer is "bid value, at the time of death, of the units purchased, subject to a minimum guaranteed sum assured of S".
Technically, isn't the difference between S and the bid value a non-unit benefit? In that case, shouldn't we be setting aside a reserve for that benefit?
Thanks!
Regards,
Sunil