Hi there
Just covering off on Chapter 11 at the moment.
It says that one of the reasons why running yields on property are higher than on shares is because:
"on average, dividends will tend to increase more rapidly than rents, as dividends benefit from returns arising from the retention of profits and their re-investment within the company".
I don't fully understand what the significance of this is. Surely, rent payments can also be used with the same intent (e.g. using them to do renovations or structural upgrades).
Thanks for any clarification!