Hello In the notes in section 2.1, there mentioned a point whereby we need to exclude positive cashflows from the later years to be prudent. Is this really the method to be used in the exams? I don't see anywhere in the examples where this is done. Thanks.
dont need to worry bout this its just introducing the next section , your not going to be asked to be "prudent" , whatever that means , in an exam.
This comment (on prudence and ignoring future positive values) relates specifically to zeroising negative cashflows for unit-linked plans. I don't think it applies to NPV calculations.