Hi,
Three Questions on the section about Shiller's test of the semi-strong form of the Efficient Markets Hypothesis (EMH):
1. This CT8 post: Ch1 & Ch8 | Actuarial Education (acted.co.uk) explains Shiller's observed "systematic forecast errors" to mean systematically over-estimating or under-estimating the price. Does this mean that Shiller's discounted dividend model always overestimated the price of each equity at each month over the 100 years?
2. Could one argue that the results of his test also contradicts the strong form of EMH - since insiders (eg Directors) may know future dividends (in the same way that Shiller knew the 100 years of dividend data) but it still wouldn't help them predict the future share price?
3. Please explain these criticisms of Shiller's methodology (page 12 of notes):
"1) the choice of terminal value for the stock price
2) the use of a constant discount rate
3) bias in estimates of the variances due to autocorrelation
4) possible non-stationarity of the series, ie the series may have stochastic trends which invalidate the measurements obtained for the variance of the stock price."
Wouldn't the terminal value be the observed share price at end of 100 years? And what is meant by 3) and 4)?
Thanks in advance!
Three Questions on the section about Shiller's test of the semi-strong form of the Efficient Markets Hypothesis (EMH):
1. This CT8 post: Ch1 & Ch8 | Actuarial Education (acted.co.uk) explains Shiller's observed "systematic forecast errors" to mean systematically over-estimating or under-estimating the price. Does this mean that Shiller's discounted dividend model always overestimated the price of each equity at each month over the 100 years?
2. Could one argue that the results of his test also contradicts the strong form of EMH - since insiders (eg Directors) may know future dividends (in the same way that Shiller knew the 100 years of dividend data) but it still wouldn't help them predict the future share price?
3. Please explain these criticisms of Shiller's methodology (page 12 of notes):
"1) the choice of terminal value for the stock price
2) the use of a constant discount rate
3) bias in estimates of the variances due to autocorrelation
4) possible non-stationarity of the series, ie the series may have stochastic trends which invalidate the measurements obtained for the variance of the stock price."
Wouldn't the terminal value be the observed share price at end of 100 years? And what is meant by 3) and 4)?
Thanks in advance!