The question is asking if the company would want to continue to use accounting policies based on Solvency I methodologies or change to Solvency II methodologies. However, the solution given mentioned under Continue using Solvency I methodology section, "The company may have employed all of its resources to gain approval for its internal model and complete the move to the Solvency II regime..." Doesn't this mean the company chose to use Solvency II methodology?
And, it mentioned IFRS 17 which I don't get the relationship here. Eg. "...and so may chose not to adopt this voluntary change in IFRS reporting methodology.", "...timeframes required to complete the financial accounts, under IFRS 17, will be different from those of Solvency II....".
And, it mentioned IFRS 17 which I don't get the relationship here. Eg. "...and so may chose not to adopt this voluntary change in IFRS reporting methodology.", "...timeframes required to complete the financial accounts, under IFRS 17, will be different from those of Solvency II....".