I am confused by the core reading on page 9 of chapter 18 (Setting Assumptions - Investment Return - Market Consistency).
The first paragraph says:
"If a market-consistent approach (as described in Section 3 of Chapter 15) is used,
either deterministically or stochastically, then the expected investment return can be set as the risk-free rate, irrespective of the actual underlying assets held (this is the "risk neutral" calibration approach)."
However, in the next paragraph it appears to contradict itself:
"However,
if the stochastic approach is adopted, then the investment return volatility and correlation assumptions do remain dependent on the actual underlying asset type(s)?"
Reading through Chapter 15 Section 3, it doesn't appear to mention anything about a stochastic market-cosistent approach...
Could someone help to clarify what the core reading is trying to say here?
Thanks!
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