I wanted to ask if it is possible that a firm which has calculated AURR as the sum of projected claims plus expenses compared to UPR net deferred acquisition costs found that the this was sufficient and reflected an expected underwriting profit on unexpired risk but has a history of the combined ratio which is increasing and is now above 100%. My thinking when I saw the combined ratio I thought that definitely an AURR should be set up but it was not the case. An explanation would be helpful in this regard because I am not fully understanding the concepts.