Hi
i share your views to some extent.
My interpretation (Im pretty sure i could be worng) was the standard CT1 immunisation - i.e construct asset protfolio to move in line with liabilities as interest rates move. I based answer around thsi concept and thought the draft form the team member was filled with rubbish definitions - the example about immuniosation involving reinvestment of coupons seemed plain rubbish.
teh only decent example given was teh 10/20 year bonds (assets ) and the 15 year bond (liabilities) and teh differences as interest rates moved
Last edited by a moderator: Apr 28, 2009