Hello all, Do you necessarily have to use Bayes Theorem for this one? I used a probability tree, finding P(Heads) as 0.75 and then calculating P(Coin 1 given that Heads) as [P(Coin 1 and Heads) / P(Heads)]. I get the same answer as the solution which uses Bayes Theorem - a fluke or am I on the right track? Thanks in advance
Sorry for the delay - I was hoping someone else might chip in! Yes it's totally fine - in fact Bayes is just a generalisation of your rule for when there is more than 2 possibilities. So feel free! John
