Brownian motion

Discussion in 'CT8' started by Benjamin, Apr 11, 2016.

  1. Benjamin

    Benjamin Member

    2015 Q&A Bank 2.13 (iii)

    If the question is asking for the expected value at u, why does the solution integrate from u to t? Are we not only concerned with 0 to u?
     
  2. Steve Hales

    Steve Hales ActEd Tutor Staff Member

    The limits of the integral are given in the question, that's why we need to integrate between 0 and t in the solution. It turns out that we really are only interested in the portion between 0 and u because the expected value of the integral between u and t is zero.
     

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