BLAGAB

Discussion in 'SA2' started by andy orodo, Dec 4, 2017.

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  1. andy orodo

    andy orodo Member

    A unit fund bond product is launched with a fund consisting of bonds and equities, with both funds rebalanced regularly. Let's say a FTSE tracker and a UK gilt 7 year fund.

    The policyholder fund gains I - C, C being charges. The shareholder gains C - E. Total SH and PH taxable income being I - C + ( C - E) = I - E. So the shareholder pays tax on C - E and the fund pays tax on I - C, it's just that the shareholder collects it all before paying the total I - E to HMRC. The marginal tax rate is 20%.

    When making deductions from the policyholder fund for tax, how is this done in reality? Is it:
    Year 1: 1/7th * 20% * (I - C) year 1
    Year 2: 1/7th * 20% * (I - C) year 2 + Year 1 tax
    ......
    Year 7: 1/7th * 20% * (I - C) year 7 + Year 1 tax + Year 2 tax+....+Year 6 tax

    Or do charge the fund:
    Year 1: 20% * (I - C) year 1
    Year 2: 20% * (I - C) year 2
    ........
    Year 7: 20% * (I - C) year 7

    but then make payments in line with the first approach:
    Year 1: 1/7th * 20% * (I - C) year 1, etc.....??

    If there is a mismatch between how tax gets deducted from the fund, and how tax gets paid to the HMRC, does this create scope for insurance companies to invest the charged taxes for themselves and earn a return before the tax is actually payable to HMRC?

    Further to this, how is equity maintained between generations of policyholders when charging the fund tax? For example, if tax is charged as per the above:

    Year 1: 1/7th * 20% * (I - C) year 1
    Year 2: 1/7th * 20% * (I - C) year 2 + Year 1 tax

    If year one had large positive growth and a large positive growth charge, then a customer joins the fund in year 2, and year two a negative growth and negative fund charge, then surely they should not be charged the Year 1 tax. Would you have to maintain price series to separate the generations of policyholders purely for tax reasons?

    Thanks for your help.
     
    Last edited by a moderator: Dec 19, 2017
  2. Lindsay Smitherman

    Lindsay Smitherman ActEd Tutor Staff Member

    Hi - you might want to revisit the course notes to check your understanding of the way in which tax is charged on I-E. I am not sure why you are applying 1/7 factors to the investment return component: it is only the BLAGAB acquisition expenses which are spread over 7 years in the tax calculation. This basically smoothes out the otherwise potential "lumpiness" of these (normally high) acquisition expenses.
     
  3. andy orodo

    andy orodo Member

  4. Lindsay Smitherman

    Lindsay Smitherman ActEd Tutor Staff Member

    Ah, I see. These 'deemed disposal' rules apply only to authorised unit trusts, UCITSs or OEICs. They do not apply to 'normal' internal unit-linked funds set up by insurance companies.

    For unit trusts/UCITSs/OEICs, the liability to pay the tax amounts that are spread forward will be held as a deferred tax liability, so the price of each unit in the trust will be adjusted accordingly. This ensures that unitholders are charged equitably for the tax arising in respect of the investment returns from which they gain.

    This is the same underlying principle as is described in Chapter 8 in relation to tax on unrealised gains on equities and properties: the unit prices are adjusted in relation to the tax liability which has accrued but which has not yet been paid.

    Hope that helps.
     
  5. andy orodo

    andy orodo Member

    Thanks Lindsay, much appreciated. I think this clears things up a lot.

    Coming back to a worked example; so the unit fund would simply be charged at a rate of 20% on I - C each year. If I - C is negative in Year 1, then a deferred tax liability would be created to offset potential future tax charges. then if I - C is positive in Year 2, the deferred tax liability can be used to offset some if not all of the tax in Year 2.

    If this was a new product, and a policyholder joined in Year 2, how do companies ensure that the new policyholder joining in Year 2 does not benefit from the deferred tax liability which belongs to Year 1 policyholders? Is there fund segregation by generations?
     
  6. Lindsay Smitherman

    Lindsay Smitherman ActEd Tutor Staff Member

    Let's say that the fund is a unit trust. Then (simplistically) it would pay 1/7 of the tax arising in that year (thus reducing the value of assets held) and it would set up a deferred tax liability in respect of the remaining 6/7. So the net asset value (assets - liabilities) would be reduced by the full liability to tax on the I-C incurred that year.

    Also during that year, it would pay the 1/7ths of tax carried forward from previous years, but it would also then reduce its tax liability in respect of those amounts - and these amounts should cancel themselves out.

    Bear in mind that a deferred tax liability is a liability to pay out to HMRC in future. If there is a loss arising, then this could be treated as a deferred tax asset which could be offset against future tax. [You may be confusing tax assets and tax liabilities?]

    So let's say that in Year 1 there is positive I-C and therefore 1/7 of the tax due is paid out to HMRC and a positive liability in respe t of the rest (6/7) of the tax is also set up. This in combination reduces the net asset value of the unit trust by the total tax incurred and hence similarly the unit price (based on net asset value per unit). So unit holders who are there in the first year have their unit values reduced to reflect the tax arising on the investment return that they have benefitted from, and the tax on that first year of investment return has been fully charged to those year 1 unit holders.

    Unit holders who join in year 2 purchase units at this price, which has already had full account taken for the tax liability accrued (and partly paid) in the first year. So the only reason why these later unitholders would end up having to pay for any of the tax incurred in the past, before they joined, would be if the company mis-estimated the tax liability for some reason and there had to be a 'truing up' when the actual tax payments (of the 6/7 amounts carried forward) were made, relative to what had been set aside for them as a liability. This mis-estimation should be minimal, and could go either way.

    Does that make things clearer?
     
  7. andy orodo

    andy orodo Member

    It does. Thanks again for your help.

    I think the piece of my understanding I was missing was that Year 2 policyholders would pay at a unit price set using a NAV which is inclusive of the deferred tax liability (not asset as you correctly pointed out). This makes a lot more sense now.

    Would the same approach apply when there is a deferred tax asset (i.e. an I-C loss) in Year 1? Suppose there were large losses in Year 1, and this creates a large DTA, and some policyholders buy in in Year 2. Is there a risk if there are low levels persistency and/or low returns in general, there are not enough gains for the DTA to be redeemed? And in this case, the Year 2 policyholders bought a DTA that they now cannot redeem against future gains?
     
  8. Lindsay Smitherman

    Lindsay Smitherman ActEd Tutor Staff Member

    If the company were to set up a deferred tax asset in respect of losses, it would have to assess carefully the extent to which it expected to be able to take some benefit from those losses in future. This is equivalent to the ideas that are discussed in Chapter 8 Section 2.3. In some cases, it may be decided not to take any credit for the carried forward losses (ie not set up a deferred tax asset) since, as you say, there might never be enough future gains against which to use them, particularly if the fund is in decline.

    Sounds like you have got the hang of it now - well done!
     
  9. andy orodo

    andy orodo Member

    Hopefully!! Thanks very much for your help, much appreciated.
     

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