I think all of the above formula is wrong! (But i could be wrong!!!)
Haven't done this subject for a couple of years now, but I think your answer may be wrong.
I would suggest that:
S(n+1) = 1 + S(n)*(1+i)
Surely the difference between S(n+1) and S(n) is that S(n+1) is compounded one year extra into the future - both start at the same time, hence we get S(n)*(1+i), but S(n+1) also has one additional payment at the end of the final year, (which therefore recieves no interest) hence +1.
Since both our formulae involve only s(n) (and not S due), you can check this by working through a practical example using the values for S(n) and S(n+1), from the actuarial tables.
The reason why:
S due (n+1) = 1 + Sn, is false is because:
The RHS has not been compounded at all (which it needs to be), to reflect that S due (n+1) earns an extra years interest on all payments than S(n) (since payments are made one year earlier).
The correct answer is in my opinion is : S due (n+1) = (1+i)^(n+1) + S(n)*(1+i)
E.g.
S(4) = (1+i)^3 + (1+i)^2 + (1+i) + 1
S due (4+1) = (1+i)^5 + (1+i)^4 + (1+i)^3 + (1+i)^2 + (1+i)
= (1+i)^5 + (1+i) * [ (1+i)^3 + (1+i)^2 + (1+i) + 1 ]
= (1+i)^(4+1) + (1+i)*S(4)
=(1+i)^(n+1) + (1+i)*S(n)
So it would seem I do not agree with the given solution either. Perhaps a tutor could clatify for us?
Hope that helps!
Last edited by a moderator: Mar 5, 2006