Section 4.8 Last line before the Question says "Redistribution would occur if contributions were subject to a ceiling but benefits are not."
In my opinion, redistribution should occur if the benefits are subject to ceiling and not contributions because this way the benefit paid is capped for all (including high contribution payers).
So I am unable the draw the correct interpretation for the statement because if contribution is restricted and benefits are unlimited, by no means it indicates redistribution of wealth as even the rich has access to high benefit payout.
Will appreciate if someone could help me to develop a better understanding.
In my opinion, redistribution should occur if the benefits are subject to ceiling and not contributions because this way the benefit paid is capped for all (including high contribution payers).
So I am unable the draw the correct interpretation for the statement because if contribution is restricted and benefits are unlimited, by no means it indicates redistribution of wealth as even the rich has access to high benefit payout.
Will appreciate if someone could help me to develop a better understanding.