B
bumblebee
Member
When setting assumptions on a best estimate basis (i.e. for internal accounts) that we would remove the underwriting adjustment to the mortality assumption. Why is this?
I can understand that well into the contract the select effect will have worn off and no longer be relevant, so do we do this just to add an element of prudence??
On a realistic basis, I'd have thought that there would be some underwriting effect on the mortality so long as we're still open for new business.
Thanks for any help in advance.
I can understand that well into the contract the select effect will have worn off and no longer be relevant, so do we do this just to add an element of prudence??
On a realistic basis, I'd have thought that there would be some underwriting effect on the mortality so long as we're still open for new business.
Thanks for any help in advance.