Rajat gupta
Ton up Member
Hi All,
Can somebody please explain why is this so that in individual asset share calculations we deduct death benefits in excess of the asset share while in aggregate asset share calculations we deduct the full death benefit sum assured? and how this is related to statement " possibly on a smoothed, rather than current cost,basis"?
Regards,
Rajat Gupta
Can somebody please explain why is this so that in individual asset share calculations we deduct death benefits in excess of the asset share while in aggregate asset share calculations we deduct the full death benefit sum assured? and how this is related to statement " possibly on a smoothed, rather than current cost,basis"?
Regards,
Rajat Gupta