My current understanding (as I am studying for the exam) is that a reserve has to be held for options/guarantees. However asset shares should pay for this reserve as in (a). So I would say that to the extent that this reserve is not offset against the asset shares it should be held as a reserve (b) (funded from free assets). Asset shares should also be charged for the opportunity cost of holding these additional reserves and any related capital requirements.
The one reason I can think of why asset shares are not adjusted for the full cost is in situations where asset shares are too small or negative (early on) to pay for the full cost.
So my answer to your question is that the total reserves would not be the same if you have not charged policyholders (reduce asset shares) for what they should be paying for.
Hopefully my understanding is ok
Last edited by a moderator: Feb 24, 2010