A
Alpha9
Member
I don't get them!
See early on in Chapter 18.
e.g. consumption-based asset pricing model:
p(t) = E[ß × u'(c(t+1))/u'(c(t)) × x(t+1)]
Whatever this actually means, it seems to me that everything is the same price unless ß is specific to the asset in question. So it must somehow be a measure of the asset's risk, but not (given we are told that ß<1) in the 'normal' beta way.
Can it price a risk-free asset?
And the formula apparently implies that we have
m = m(t+1) = ß × u'(c(t+1))/u'(c(t))
so m doesn't depend on time? Why not? Surely the price of an asset varies with time, even with the same payoff?
Then we get onto the CAPM.
p(t) = a + b Rw(t+1)
We are supposed to be able to ascertain a and b by considering, say, the risk-free rate and the wealth portfolio return (so presumably we have two simultaneous equations to solve in a and b). But that will surely give us a and b fixed for all assets, hence all assets are the same price: either that, or we have more than two variables in our two simultaneous equations, so we can't solve.
What gives?
I hope someone can help: the reading doesn't seem to be helping me! It might have something to do with the fact that I never had to do CT8, having been through a few transitions over the years!
Cheers, folks!
See early on in Chapter 18.
e.g. consumption-based asset pricing model:
p(t) = E[ß × u'(c(t+1))/u'(c(t)) × x(t+1)]
Whatever this actually means, it seems to me that everything is the same price unless ß is specific to the asset in question. So it must somehow be a measure of the asset's risk, but not (given we are told that ß<1) in the 'normal' beta way.
Can it price a risk-free asset?
And the formula apparently implies that we have
m = m(t+1) = ß × u'(c(t+1))/u'(c(t))
so m doesn't depend on time? Why not? Surely the price of an asset varies with time, even with the same payoff?
Then we get onto the CAPM.
p(t) = a + b Rw(t+1)
We are supposed to be able to ascertain a and b by considering, say, the risk-free rate and the wealth portfolio return (so presumably we have two simultaneous equations to solve in a and b). But that will surely give us a and b fixed for all assets, hence all assets are the same price: either that, or we have more than two variables in our two simultaneous equations, so we can't solve.
What gives?
I hope someone can help: the reading doesn't seem to be helping me! It might have something to do with the fact that I never had to do CT8, having been through a few transitions over the years!
Cheers, folks!