Actuary@2024
Made first post
In the examiner's report section, it is mentioned:
"Although, if the proportion is significantly higher, then the mortality of the option policy may tend to the ultimate mortality if there are not a lot of selective withdrawals in advance of the option date. Therefore, the additional mortality risk of the higher uptake is offset by a reduction in the additional mortality in the option policy."
can someone please explain the second statement?
"Although, if the proportion is significantly higher, then the mortality of the option policy may tend to the ultimate mortality if there are not a lot of selective withdrawals in advance of the option date. Therefore, the additional mortality risk of the higher uptake is offset by a reduction in the additional mortality in the option policy."
can someone please explain the second statement?