New poster here! I would like to get thoughts on parts v and vi in question 1 regarding a potential appeal.
v)Assess the relevance of downside risk measurement to determining risk in a bond portfolio.
vi)Contrast the approaches used by BAM (uses 95% 1 day VAR) and LIL (uses annualized volatility), including consideration of appropriateness for the assessment of risk in a bond portfolio
In the examiners report it says: "This question was poorly answered. Many candidates failed to recognise the relevance of the asymmetric return profile of bonds."
A)Can someone explain this? Is it true that all bonds have an assyemtric return? Isn't that only corporate bonds where there is default risk? Would equities or risky bonds have been a better example?
B)Was this concept discussed in the syllabus, i.e. the importance to use a downside risk measure by an assymetric return profile? did the question appear to be referring to this concept?
C)Lastly, how would others have answered this question given the lack of clarity?
I believe the question was unclear and I'm not sure the examiners took it into account (given how poorly answered this question was answered).
Thank you in advance for your replies!!
Last edited by a moderator: Jul 21, 2017