Please can you confirm whether the following approach to Q1(i) is correct?
Liabilities at start of year = £5.2m
Assets at start of year = £5.2m
Surplus at start of year = zero
Liabilities at end of year = £5.2m * 1.03= £5.356m
Assets at end of year = £5.2m + £5.2m * 14*(7%-6%) = £5.928m
Surplus during 2012 = £5.928 - £5.356m = £572,000
The question says, "The company sold £1m of new business premiums, which resulted in a Pillar 1 loss of £50,000 (measured as at the end of 2012)". The amount of new business annuities payments have not been provided.
Does anyone have view on what assumptions should be made about annuity payments for new business and whether this needs to be incorporated in the answer to part (i)?
For part (ii), can we use the formulas given in the course notes?
Liabilities at start of year = £5.2m
Assets at start of year = £5.2m
Surplus at start of year = zero
Liabilities at end of year = £5.2m * 1.03= £5.356m
Assets at end of year = £5.2m + £5.2m * 14*(7%-6%) = £5.928m
Surplus during 2012 = £5.928 - £5.356m = £572,000
The question says, "The company sold £1m of new business premiums, which resulted in a Pillar 1 loss of £50,000 (measured as at the end of 2012)". The amount of new business annuities payments have not been provided.
Does anyone have view on what assumptions should be made about annuity payments for new business and whether this needs to be incorporated in the answer to part (i)?
For part (ii), can we use the formulas given in the course notes?