Is the examiner's report solution incorrect anyway?
I can get the overall figures that they do, (e.g. assuming cash flows at end of period, so using their "Alt" figures):
Fund outperformance of 5.97%
Represented by 1.10% stock selection (I got 1.11%, and so would the examiners if their figures had added up)
Sector allocation of 4.86% (I got 4.87%)
Of which currency is 0.85% (I agreed this, although the examiners' figures add to 0.84%).
However, within each sector my figures start diverging rapidly from those of the examiners: e.g. Japan currency: I get -0.25% (i.e. {20% - 15%} × -5%) whereas the examiner got -0.35%; and for sector allocation for Japan, my answer of (20% - 15%) × 16.92% = 0.85% is a long way from their 0.03%! If anything I could have got an even higher figure for sector allocation because the average Japan exposure over the year was more than 20%.
Apart from US and cash, the other sectors I get very different too.
How did they come up with their answers?
This is of particular concern given that the core reading refers to this very question and the examiners' answer as an example of how to do things!
Update
Too late now for this session, but the answer is set out well here:
http://www.acted.co.uk/forums/showthread.php?t=490
eg for Japan's asset allocation I needed to consider the relative return to the whole notional benchmark, i.e. .05 × (16.92% - 16.23%).
Last edited by a moderator: Oct 2, 2009