No. I'm using q = (e^r - d) / (u-d) with the proper risk-free rate.
Multiplying top and bottom by S(0) gives:
q = [S(0)e^r - S(0)d] / [S(0)u - S(0)d]
S(0)=0.94
Cash grows from 0.94 to 1.00, so S(0)e^r = 1.00
S(0)d = 0.90 and S(0)u = 1.15 as stated in the question.
The RFR you're calculating is an annual effecvtive rate, but you're using it as though it were a force of interest.
Also, your q formula is missing a 0.94 before the exponential. You need this because the 1.15 and 0.90 aren't up and down factors, they are up and down share values, given the share price starts at 0.94
Either set r=ln(1.00/0.94)=6.1875%, or plug your value into:
q = [0.94(1+i) - 0.90] / [1.15 - 0.90]
Last edited by a moderator: Oct 4, 2011