L
LloydieW1990
Member
Please could somebody explain the penultimate paragraph on page 6 of chapter 40?
It essentially says that to mitigate the risk of annuity terms being worse than expected due to falls in bond yields, one should switch to bonds that back the annuities as retirement approaches. If bond yields falls, the cost of purchasing annuities will rise. However, this should be offset by a rise in the value of the retirement fund.
I'm struggling with the last two sentences. The value of the fund will rise but by a smaller amount than expected since bond yields are lower. Does the "cost of purchasing annuities" mean the cost relative to before the fall in bonds as the member now has less purchasing power than before? If so, why move to bonds at all close to retirement?
Huge thanks in advance
It essentially says that to mitigate the risk of annuity terms being worse than expected due to falls in bond yields, one should switch to bonds that back the annuities as retirement approaches. If bond yields falls, the cost of purchasing annuities will rise. However, this should be offset by a rise in the value of the retirement fund.
I'm struggling with the last two sentences. The value of the fund will rise but by a smaller amount than expected since bond yields are lower. Does the "cost of purchasing annuities" mean the cost relative to before the fall in bonds as the member now has less purchasing power than before? If so, why move to bonds at all close to retirement?
Huge thanks in advance