S
Sisyphus
Member
Hopefully this is not a repeat of questions already asked. I think I understand the concept of actuarial funding, but there are a few issues around which I still have questions.
Firstly page 6 of Chapter 14 suggests we use a discount rate (d) equal to the fund management charge (m). I assume (m) here will be the excess of capital unit charges over accumulation unit charges. On page 9 the assurance function is used with interest rate (i) = (m). Strictly speaking, is it not the case that d = i/(1+i)?
Second, I am not sure I understand why we need to "buy back" units/rebuild the unit fund. Isn't the whole idea of actuarial funding, that the company deducts in advance, the fees it would otherwise deduct in the future? It is not borrowing the units so I don't understand why they would need to be put back (unless the mortality basis is strengthened in future). Is the "buy back" simply a notional action, in order to allow the full remaining capital unit charge to be deducted at the end of each year?
- (The post felt incomplete without a smiley face of some sort)
Firstly page 6 of Chapter 14 suggests we use a discount rate (d) equal to the fund management charge (m). I assume (m) here will be the excess of capital unit charges over accumulation unit charges. On page 9 the assurance function is used with interest rate (i) = (m). Strictly speaking, is it not the case that d = i/(1+i)?
Second, I am not sure I understand why we need to "buy back" units/rebuild the unit fund. Isn't the whole idea of actuarial funding, that the company deducts in advance, the fees it would otherwise deduct in the future? It is not borrowing the units so I don't understand why they would need to be put back (unless the mortality basis is strengthened in future). Is the "buy back" simply a notional action, in order to allow the full remaining capital unit charge to be deducted at the end of each year?