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Member
I'm curious as to when Actuarial Funding would be used as opposed to Negative Non-Unit Reserves.
The Core Reading says:
"...negative non-unit reserves are an alternative to the use of actuarial funding.
As I understand it, Negative Non-Unit Reserves take credit for future charges which are expected to be over and above future expenses, reducing the required reserves at day one. Actuarial Funding takes credit for future Fund Management Charges which are set higher than they need to be to cover future expected renewal expenses.
So they seem to be two very different ways of doing the same thing, i.e. taking credit now for future expense charges which are higher than necessary to cover future expenses. Is there a reason why one method would be used instead of the other?
Thanks for any comments/explanations
The Core Reading says:
"...negative non-unit reserves are an alternative to the use of actuarial funding.
As I understand it, Negative Non-Unit Reserves take credit for future charges which are expected to be over and above future expenses, reducing the required reserves at day one. Actuarial Funding takes credit for future Fund Management Charges which are set higher than they need to be to cover future expected renewal expenses.
So they seem to be two very different ways of doing the same thing, i.e. taking credit now for future expense charges which are higher than necessary to cover future expenses. Is there a reason why one method would be used instead of the other?
Thanks for any comments/explanations