J
joelee88
Member
Hi guys, just have a question and would highly appreciate it if u could please help me with this simple question? 
Referring to Question 7.12 Chapter 7, Pg 13 of CT1 07,
A dwarf agrees to make investments continuously for the next 10 years. He decides that he can afford to invest USD 20t at time t, 0</= t </= 10. The annual effective rate of interest throughout the ten years is 3.7%.
Given the PV of 787.82 at time 0, calculate the accumulated value at time 10.
The answer given in the combined pack is 787.82*1.037^10 = 1132.96
My question is, when calculatating the accumulated value, why shouldn't we use force of interest [ln (1+0.037)] instead of the effective interes rate 0.037? Its continuous annuity afterall?
Thanks in advance for your help!
Referring to Question 7.12 Chapter 7, Pg 13 of CT1 07,
A dwarf agrees to make investments continuously for the next 10 years. He decides that he can afford to invest USD 20t at time t, 0</= t </= 10. The annual effective rate of interest throughout the ten years is 3.7%.
Given the PV of 787.82 at time 0, calculate the accumulated value at time 10.
The answer given in the combined pack is 787.82*1.037^10 = 1132.96
My question is, when calculatating the accumulated value, why shouldn't we use force of interest [ln (1+0.037)] instead of the effective interes rate 0.037? Its continuous annuity afterall?
Thanks in advance for your help!