Hi, When working through the above paper the question states that males should get preferential annuity rates to females. I am not sure if this is me not understanding how gender neutral works with regards to pensions or if this is because this example does not follow reality. I assumed, in reality, that annuity rates should be equal between genders. This does not seem to be the case in the question. Can someone shed a bit of light on this for me. Cheers,
Hi - gender neutral rates are a relatively recent thing in the Uk. Until recently pricing could be based on gender in the UK and may still be the case in other countries.
