Cam Bridger
Keen member
I've got the correct answer to this, but when checking against the answer there's something fundamental I don't think I'm understanding.
'The p-value of F=124.7 is much less than even 0.01, so H0 is rejected at the 1% level.'
When I go to the tables at the 5% level for a one sided test, I'm looking at F_1,n-2 = F_1,4 and get a value of 7.709 which is much less than 124.7 and the 1% value of F_1,4 is 21.2. Why is the answer saying the p value of F124.7 is less than even 0.01, ie, 1% level when it's not?
On a separate note, when doing these tests we're not asked at what level to do these at. Sometimes the answer uses the 5% level, sometimes it uses the 1% level, why is this? Is it just trying to show how strong the evidence is for rejection?
Thanks!
'The p-value of F=124.7 is much less than even 0.01, so H0 is rejected at the 1% level.'
When I go to the tables at the 5% level for a one sided test, I'm looking at F_1,n-2 = F_1,4 and get a value of 7.709 which is much less than 124.7 and the 1% value of F_1,4 is 21.2. Why is the answer saying the p value of F124.7 is less than even 0.01, ie, 1% level when it's not?
On a separate note, when doing these tests we're not asked at what level to do these at. Sometimes the answer uses the 5% level, sometimes it uses the 1% level, why is this? Is it just trying to show how strong the evidence is for rejection?
Thanks!