T
Trevor
Member
Hi, I need some help understanding Unearned Premium Reserve (UPR) in chapter 21, page 8.
By reading the Acted text below it, I understand it as portion of the premium received to cover risk exposure for the following year, though the policy hasn’t claimed.
But why do we need to set up reserve for money coming in?
Even if it is saying we need to consider future cash inflow to not overestimate reserves, shouldn’t this be considered already in the standard reserve calculation formula? (Prospective formula: SA_x+t -Pa_x+t)
In the Acted text too, it mentions it is similar to the retrospective approach (Pa_x - SA_x)
I think I might need help to understand the logic of the retrospective reserving approach too (although this should be cleared in CT5 itself)
The prospective formula is pretty intuitive: from the current time point, we assess how much do we need to pay in the future, offset with how much money we are getting, that tells us how much money we need now.
However I think I don’t quite understand the logic for the retrospective formula:
It looks at how much money have we received up till today, and how much have we actually paid out(based on actual experience, ie: asset share)
How does this imply how much money should we hold for future liabilities?
Can someone help me out?
By reading the Acted text below it, I understand it as portion of the premium received to cover risk exposure for the following year, though the policy hasn’t claimed.
But why do we need to set up reserve for money coming in?
Even if it is saying we need to consider future cash inflow to not overestimate reserves, shouldn’t this be considered already in the standard reserve calculation formula? (Prospective formula: SA_x+t -Pa_x+t)
In the Acted text too, it mentions it is similar to the retrospective approach (Pa_x - SA_x)
I think I might need help to understand the logic of the retrospective reserving approach too (although this should be cleared in CT5 itself)
The prospective formula is pretty intuitive: from the current time point, we assess how much do we need to pay in the future, offset with how much money we are getting, that tells us how much money we need now.
However I think I don’t quite understand the logic for the retrospective formula:
It looks at how much money have we received up till today, and how much have we actually paid out(based on actual experience, ie: asset share)
How does this imply how much money should we hold for future liabilities?
Can someone help me out?