Hi,
This is probably super basic but I can't seem to get my head around it: if there is an investment return loss in the analysis of surplus for immediate annuities backed by fixed-interest bonds and we're told that the yields on the bonds have fallen, the explanation given is that the loss is as a result of mismatching of assets and liabilities and that the fixed-interest securities are likely to be of shorter duration than the liabilities.
How is that deduced?
Thanks
This is probably super basic but I can't seem to get my head around it: if there is an investment return loss in the analysis of surplus for immediate annuities backed by fixed-interest bonds and we're told that the yields on the bonds have fallen, the explanation given is that the loss is as a result of mismatching of assets and liabilities and that the fixed-interest securities are likely to be of shorter duration than the liabilities.
How is that deduced?
Thanks