P
Parul Aggarwal
Member
Hi
I have a doubt regarding the approach followed for calculating discounted values of cashflows in Q1(i), where the answer booklet shows the discounted value at time n as (cashflow)/(1+i)^n which give the present value at time 0. As an example, the PV for a cashflow corresponding to time 2 is calculated as CF2/(1+i)^2 which give the PV at time 0, but this PV is shown in the time 2 row. Therefore, it is calculating the PV at time 0 FOR a cashflow happening at time 2 and showing it in the row of time 2.
Shouldn't the PV in the row of time 2 in the excel should be the discounted value of all the cashflows from time 2 till end, which gives the PV at time 2?
I have a doubt regarding the approach followed for calculating discounted values of cashflows in Q1(i), where the answer booklet shows the discounted value at time n as (cashflow)/(1+i)^n which give the present value at time 0. As an example, the PV for a cashflow corresponding to time 2 is calculated as CF2/(1+i)^2 which give the PV at time 0, but this PV is shown in the time 2 row. Therefore, it is calculating the PV at time 0 FOR a cashflow happening at time 2 and showing it in the row of time 2.
Shouldn't the PV in the row of time 2 in the excel should be the discounted value of all the cashflows from time 2 till end, which gives the PV at time 2?