Greg Raine
Member
Hi,
I've gone through the last exam and am a bit unsure of my understanding for questions 21 and 24, which have answers in the examiner's report of A and D respectively.
For Question 21, I thought that the inflationary gap refers to the difference between actual output and potential output at full employment. My thought process was therefore looking for policies to increase employment, to try and achieve full employment, and in turn reducing this gap. I thought reducing income tax would incentivise more people to work, due to a potential substitution effect between leisure and work, so answered C for this.
For Question 24, my understanding is that a tariff is an ad velorum tax on an imported good or service. So if the tariff was removed, then consumers would pay lower prices, thus narrowing my choices between B and D. I thought that if tariff was removed, then producers of the good/service would receive the lower price (as the tax has been removed). My only thought after seeing the answer was that maybe the question was referring to domestic producers?
Please could someone explain the rationale behind the answers, as I feel my understanding for both solutions is slightly off.
Many thanks,
Greg
I've gone through the last exam and am a bit unsure of my understanding for questions 21 and 24, which have answers in the examiner's report of A and D respectively.
For Question 21, I thought that the inflationary gap refers to the difference between actual output and potential output at full employment. My thought process was therefore looking for policies to increase employment, to try and achieve full employment, and in turn reducing this gap. I thought reducing income tax would incentivise more people to work, due to a potential substitution effect between leisure and work, so answered C for this.
For Question 24, my understanding is that a tariff is an ad velorum tax on an imported good or service. So if the tariff was removed, then consumers would pay lower prices, thus narrowing my choices between B and D. I thought that if tariff was removed, then producers of the good/service would receive the lower price (as the tax has been removed). My only thought after seeing the answer was that maybe the question was referring to domestic producers?
Please could someone explain the rationale behind the answers, as I feel my understanding for both solutions is slightly off.
Many thanks,
Greg