A
ALEX_AK
Member
Point 4 of the solution mentioned that active management of operational risk has no inherent upside potential. (I didn’t find this point in LAM or Sweeting)
But solution to Q24.2 mentioned that the distinct benefit of operational RM is minimising reputational damage, day to day losses, etc.
The 2 seems to be contradicting each other.
What does the solution mean by “upside potential”? Seems like it does not mean “benefits”.
Anyone has any insights?
But solution to Q24.2 mentioned that the distinct benefit of operational RM is minimising reputational damage, day to day losses, etc.
The 2 seems to be contradicting each other.
What does the solution mean by “upside potential”? Seems like it does not mean “benefits”.
Anyone has any insights?