• We are pleased to announce that the winner of our Feedback Prize Draw for the Winter 2024-25 session and winning £150 of gift vouchers is Zhao Liang Tay. Congratulations to Zhao Liang. If you fancy winning £150 worth of gift vouchers (from a major UK store) for the Summer 2025 exam sitting for just a few minutes of your time throughout the session, please see our website at https://www.acted.co.uk/further-info.html?pat=feedback#feedback-prize for more information on how you can make sure your name is included in the draw at the end of the session.
  • Please be advised that the SP1, SP5 and SP7 X1 deadline is the 14th July and not the 17th June as first stated. Please accept out apologies for any confusion caused.

Breakdown of the excess yield of corporate bonds over treasury bonds

  • Thread starter actually an Actuary
  • Start date
A

actually an Actuary

Member
Hi guys,
In Chapter 3 of the notes there is a section that reads.......
The excess of the yield on corporate bonds over Treasury bonds is typically
decomposed into four components:
1. Compensation for expected defaults.
2. Investors may expect future defaults to exceed historic levels.
3. Compensation for the risk of higher defaults, ie a credit risk premium.
4. A residual that includes the compensation for the liquidity risk — typically
referred to as an illiquidity premium.

What is the difference between point 2 and 3?
 
The difference between these is quite tenuous. I think in CAPM theory, there is a risk premium in respect of expected volatility and uncertainty (possibly caused by the uncertainty of future credit events). This is point 3 above. In addition, if you actually think there is a Y% chance that the bond will default and you will lose your money, you will factor this Y% loss into your price calculation. This is point 2. They are both similar, but one is compensation for the uncertainty and risk of future credit events, and the other is for anticipated or predicted losses.
 
Then, what is the difference between point 1 and point 2??
Because under both scenarios, we are factoring in the risk of defaults.?
The difference between these is quite tenuous. I think in CAPM theory, there is a risk premium in respect of expected volatility and uncertainty (possibly caused by the uncertainty of future credit events). This is point 3 above. In addition, if you actually think there is a Y% chance that the bond will default and you will lose your money, you will factor this Y% loss into your price calculation. This is point 2. They are both similar, but one is compensation for the uncertainty and risk of future credit events, and the other is for anticipated or predicted losses.
 
Back
Top