M
Maria Pizpiki
Member
Hello,
I have a few questions on this past exam Q.
Based on the notes the Solvency Ratio is the division of free reserves and net written premium. However I understand that in this question the premiums taken are gross and not net. Is it because by net we mean net of reinsurance and not net of acquisition costs?
I have an additional question regarding the Claims ratio. I see that the incurred claims taken in order to calculate the claim ratio is: claims paid+change in O/S reserve, where change in O/S reserve is (O/S reserve cf- O/S reserve bf). I would like to ask why do we take the change in O/S reserve and not the O/S reserve cf instead.
Final question, is regarding the UPR. I understand why GEP=GWP as we implicitly assume that the business is on a steady state. However, I'd like to understand why GWP=2*UPR when we assume uniform risk distribution and that policies are written uniformly over the year. I will give an example:
Assume that in total we write 120 euros in a given year. Given the assumptions above this would equate to writing 10 euros per month (2nd assumption). We now assume that we earn every month's 10 euros uniformly. Hence, the gross earned premium for policies written in this year would be:
(12+11+10+9+8+7+6+5+4+3+2+1)*10/12=65. The UPR then would be GWP-UPR=55. Why don't get that GWP=2*UPR? Is there something wrong in the above calculations?
Thanks in advance for your help.
Maria
I have a few questions on this past exam Q.
Based on the notes the Solvency Ratio is the division of free reserves and net written premium. However I understand that in this question the premiums taken are gross and not net. Is it because by net we mean net of reinsurance and not net of acquisition costs?
I have an additional question regarding the Claims ratio. I see that the incurred claims taken in order to calculate the claim ratio is: claims paid+change in O/S reserve, where change in O/S reserve is (O/S reserve cf- O/S reserve bf). I would like to ask why do we take the change in O/S reserve and not the O/S reserve cf instead.
Final question, is regarding the UPR. I understand why GEP=GWP as we implicitly assume that the business is on a steady state. However, I'd like to understand why GWP=2*UPR when we assume uniform risk distribution and that policies are written uniformly over the year. I will give an example:
Assume that in total we write 120 euros in a given year. Given the assumptions above this would equate to writing 10 euros per month (2nd assumption). We now assume that we earn every month's 10 euros uniformly. Hence, the gross earned premium for policies written in this year would be:
(12+11+10+9+8+7+6+5+4+3+2+1)*10/12=65. The UPR then would be GWP-UPR=55. Why don't get that GWP=2*UPR? Is there something wrong in the above calculations?
Thanks in advance for your help.
Maria