Hi,
Am I right in assuming there is no use of "the minimum capital requirement for banks is 8% of their RWA" in Basel II and III?
It seems to me it was just a Basel I thing, or is it still used as a floor?
In other words under Basel II and III Capital = max(8% RWA, COM)?
Help will be appreciated
Last edited by a moderator: Apr 22, 2015