Ashna Satyajit
Keen member
Hi,
I am unable to understand the Examiner's report Solution for September 2017 Q2 (iii) which asks us to "determine the amount of assets paid by the NPF to the WPF in respect of future new business".
As per my understanding, this asset amount should reflect the future profits of the immediate annuity business (which are now going into the NPF) that were previously distributed to the WP policyholders. The Solution mentions determining a one-off surplus amount that would be paid from the NPF to the WPF, which makes sense.
It also makes sense to arrive at the value of this one-off surplus based on expected future profits - which (I understand) would be the future profits expected from the immediate annuities - because that is what is required to be paid back to the WP fund. The future profits within the WP fund from the WP products don't need to be determined here, since those will remain in the WP Fund anyway.
However, the Solution says the following:
"The key element will be the anticipated new business volume
and whether this new business is from maturing with profits policies or from external sources
if it comes from the with-profits business, then the WPF may be entitled to more value."
This doesn't make sense to me.
1. Why are we looking at the profit generated from the WP Fund if we need to determine the profit from the immediate annuities that belong to the WP Fund?
2. The WP business is stated to be closed to new business for years. So how would there be any anticipated new business volume coming from the with profits business?
I am unable to understand the Examiner's report Solution for September 2017 Q2 (iii) which asks us to "determine the amount of assets paid by the NPF to the WPF in respect of future new business".
As per my understanding, this asset amount should reflect the future profits of the immediate annuity business (which are now going into the NPF) that were previously distributed to the WP policyholders. The Solution mentions determining a one-off surplus amount that would be paid from the NPF to the WPF, which makes sense.
It also makes sense to arrive at the value of this one-off surplus based on expected future profits - which (I understand) would be the future profits expected from the immediate annuities - because that is what is required to be paid back to the WP fund. The future profits within the WP fund from the WP products don't need to be determined here, since those will remain in the WP Fund anyway.
However, the Solution says the following:
"The key element will be the anticipated new business volume
and whether this new business is from maturing with profits policies or from external sources
if it comes from the with-profits business, then the WPF may be entitled to more value."
This doesn't make sense to me.
1. Why are we looking at the profit generated from the WP Fund if we need to determine the profit from the immediate annuities that belong to the WP Fund?
2. The WP business is stated to be closed to new business for years. So how would there be any anticipated new business volume coming from the with profits business?