M
marymaj86
Member
Hello
I am finding some parts of Question 6.2 in the Q&A Bank (parts (ii) (a) and (b)) very difficult to understand, and I was hoping to ask a few queries about them.
Firstly, part (ii) (a) involves calculating the underwriting result for three years. The solution shows that part of the underwriting result is a claims adjustment, which is a release of surplus due to a reduction in loss ratios. I cannot see where the adjustment comes from, though, apart from the 20.25 in 2008 - which seems to be ((80% - 70%) * 202.5).
In part (ii) (b), I am unsure how the surpluses arise at the end of each year. For example, there is a 4.05 surplus at the end of 2007, even though we had just been told that a loss of 2.03 had been incurred in 2007.
At the end of 2008, there is a release of surplus of 12.27 - again, I cannot see where it came from. Also, 8.18 is "released immediately" (perhaps to cover the loss in 2008), but why does the remaining 4.09 stay in the fund if it, too, has been released?
It seems to be the case in this question that if a loss occurs, it is recognised immediately, but if a profit is made, it is not recognised until the end of the 3rd year; is this correct?
Many thanks in advance for any advice that you can give me on this.
I am finding some parts of Question 6.2 in the Q&A Bank (parts (ii) (a) and (b)) very difficult to understand, and I was hoping to ask a few queries about them.
Firstly, part (ii) (a) involves calculating the underwriting result for three years. The solution shows that part of the underwriting result is a claims adjustment, which is a release of surplus due to a reduction in loss ratios. I cannot see where the adjustment comes from, though, apart from the 20.25 in 2008 - which seems to be ((80% - 70%) * 202.5).
In part (ii) (b), I am unsure how the surpluses arise at the end of each year. For example, there is a 4.05 surplus at the end of 2007, even though we had just been told that a loss of 2.03 had been incurred in 2007.
At the end of 2008, there is a release of surplus of 12.27 - again, I cannot see where it came from. Also, 8.18 is "released immediately" (perhaps to cover the loss in 2008), but why does the remaining 4.09 stay in the fund if it, too, has been released?
It seems to be the case in this question that if a loss occurs, it is recognised immediately, but if a profit is made, it is not recognised until the end of the 3rd year; is this correct?
Many thanks in advance for any advice that you can give me on this.