I have some queries on question 1 of April 2017 exam paper. I will appreciate if someone can correct my understanding below: 1(i) The solution in the examiner report states that risk of defaults on corporate bond will be subject to the Counterparty default risk module. This is incorrect as corporate bonds are not subject to this risk module. “Risk of defaults on corporate bonds held (or reinsurer default). Counterparty default risk module”. Is this an error in the solution? (iv) I don’t follow the solution when it says “…the company is only exposed to credit spread movements on the liabilities which reduces the magnitude of the stress”. My understanding is that the direct impact on the standard formula SCR is in calculation of the spread risk sub-module. Under the spread risk sub-module, a stress is applied to assets which results in a lower value of assets. This means the yield on assets would go up under the stress, which could result in a higher matching adjustment provided that increase in the yield on assets is assumed to be higher than any increase in the fundamental spread. A higher matching adjustment would result in a lower value of technical provisions and hence, higher net assets under the stress. Spread risk capital requirements would be lower as change in net assets would be lower compared to if matching adjustment is not applied. There may not be any impact on other sub-modules in the market risk module as matching adjustment is not stressed but some second order impact is possible due to a higher rate used to discount liabilities. (v) The question asks how the company can identify appropriate assets and the factors it will need consider for the matching adjustment. The solution in the examiner report does not seem to be tailored to the question and focuses too much on modelling of liabilities / matching adjustment which is not asked. Projection of asset and liability cashflows is relevant for matching adjustment calculation but for identification of assets it should be a minor point in the answer. I would expect the answer to cover following points: · First step will be to identify which assets can be attributed to immediate annuities as they are written in the same fund as the deferred annuities. This will depend upon a number of factors. · Not all assets attributed to immediate annuities will be eligible e.g. equity or property. The company will need to review terms and conditions or prospectuses of the assets to assess their eligibility. · Some assets may not be eligible for the matching adjustment in their own right but when grouped with other assets they can produce fixed cash flows e.g. a foreign currency bond hedged with an FX swap. · Assets may need to be restructured or securitised to make the eligible for the matching adjustment e.g. equity release mortgage. · The company will need to consider the PRA’s interpretation of the matching adjustment eligibility requirement set out in Solvency II. · Project asset and liability cashflows under different scenarios / sensitivities to assess which assets can be included in the matching adjustment portfolio. Am I missing anything or misinterpreting the question?